June 11, 2005

Why do protestants and Catholics have different Bibles?

Many protestants don’t realize that they have a different Bible than Catholics (many Catholics miss this as well). The protestant Bible only contains 39 Old Testament books, 7 less than the Catholic Bible and two other books are missing a few chapters or verses. Why is this?

Where we got the Bible
The story starts with the origins of Scripture. There were several Old Testament versions floating around at the Birth of Christianity. Some groups recognized only the first 5 books of the Bible, which are commonly called the Torah or Law. Another group recognized only the Torah and the Prophets. But the most common version of the Old Testament, which was accepted by virtually all of the Jewish people, is the Septuagint. The Septuagint includes the Torah, the prophets, and all of the other Old Testament books – including the seven only in the Catholic Bible. Those seven books include Tobit, Judith, 1 and 2 Maccabees, the Wisdom of Solomon, Sirach, and Baruch. These seven books were written a little later than the others (the Old Testament was compiled over many, many years) and became known as deutocanonical, which means ‘second canon.’

In 70 A.D. the plot thickened. The Romans invaded Jerusalem and destroyed the Jewish temple. Because of this, the Jewish authorities met in Javneh in 90 A.D. to re-establish the canon. They excluded the Gospels and threw out every Old Testament book that referred to the Romans as a friend of the Jews (this was the worst imaginable travesty to faithful Jews). But remember, by this time the Christians had become the true church of Christ, thus the Jews did not have the authority to change the books of Scripture. In addition, if we accept their decision at this council, how can we include the Gospels? These were also condemned. (Note also that some Jews still include the deuterocanonical books in their canon of Scripture.)

The New Testament began being written around 55 A.D. (Matthew was the first to start). But the last New Testament book completed wasn’t until after 100 A.D. (Revelations). Remember that Christ was crucified in 33 A.D. During this time, individual churches would have access to some Scriptural text, but probably not all. There was no consensus over which books were Scripture and which were not – several books were floating around that we do not consider Scripture today, such as the Gospel of Thomas, etc. Over the next few hundred years a general consensus was reached concerning which books were Scripture. But there were still discrepancies, for example some people did not acknowledge Revelation as Scripture.

So in 393 A.D., over 350 years after the Crucifixion, the pope called a council of all the Roman Catholic bishops. Together they determined the official canon of Scripture that we now call the Bible (which translates as “book”). This council, called the Council of Hippo offers us the first definition of the Bible and lists the exact books in the Catholic Bible as we know them. This was reaffirmed at the Council of Carthage in 397 A.D. and again at the Council of Trent in 1548 (this last was in response to the challenge by Martin Luther). From the definition in 393 A.D. until Luther entered the world stage, the Catholic Bible was the only Christian Bible.

Martin Luther’s Influence
Much like the Jesus Seminar, Martin Luther was very skeptical of some parts of Scripture. In particular, he didn’t like some books of the Old Testament that clearly contradicted his interpretation of Scripture. For example, Tobit and Maccabees teach that we should pray for the dead; 2 Maccabees 15:14 (which is alluded to in Revelation 6:9-10) teaches the intercession of the Saints; Tobit teaches the intercession of Angels. But Martin Luther had a convenient way out of this problem: the Jewish Scriptures (the Old Testament) of his day did not include the Apocryptha (this was a new term to denigrate the authority of these Scriptures). So Luther effectively changed the Bible – despite the fact that Scripture condemns those who do so.

So, in 1520 we have the first Bible printed that separates out the deuterocanonical books. Initially all protestant Bibles were still printed with these books included. In fact, in England a law was passed that threatened the death penalty for anyone printing a Bible without them – even the original King James version included the “Apocryptha.” But Luther, Calvin and others taught that these books were not equivalent to other Scriptures. It wasn’t until 1827 that the first Bible was printed without them. Luther also wanted to throw out several New Testament books, including Hebrews, James (which contradicts his thought), Jude, and Revelation. In fact, he moved these books to the back of the protestant Bible because of his dislike of them (they remain at the back of most protestant translations). He also wanted to remove the Old Testament books of Job and Jonah (he considered them “fables”).

Should we read the Apocrypha or Deuterocanonical books?
I think there is far more evidence supporting the validity of these books. Here’s a quick summary:


  • Out of the 350 Old Testament citations in the New Testament, 300 come from the Septuagint, which included the deuterocanonical books.
  • The earliest Greek copies of the Old Testament we have (circa 450 A.D.) include these books (there are two such Greek copies).
  • The early Church Fathers (even from before the Council of Hippo) refer to these books as Scripture (they don’t suggest any difference between these books and the rest of the Old Testament). These men weren’t perfect and there are a few that did separate the deuterocanonical books out, but not many. Only St. Jerome suggested they might not be Scriptural (again, pre-Council of Hippo). Later in his life, St. Jerome defended the deuterocanonical books as Scripture.
  • Jesus and His apostles never denounced the Septuagint or even suggested that it was erroneous. It was the predominant translation of His day, so if it included incorrect books you would expected Christ himself or one of the twelve to condemn it. But they choose not to and instead quoted from it.
  • There are several New Testament verses which are considered paraphrases of deuterocanonical passages. For example, 1 Corinthians 15:29 references 2 Maccabees 12:44 (this is a particularly problematic passage for protestants); Hebrews 11:35 references 2 Maccabees 7 (the only place in the Old Testament where someone is tortured as described in Hebrews); and Revelation 8:3-4 references Tobit 12:15.
  • Finally, if the books had not contradicted Luther’s new translation of Scripture, it is unlikely they would have been removed. They had to be removed in order for Luther’s new “church” to be even partially believable.

Conclusion
Clearly, the deuterocanonical books were accepted by Christ and His apostles in the Septuagint as they were by the earliest Christians. The primary definition of the Bible as we know it includes these books and for a millennia all Christians accepted it. Why should it change? Martin Luther had invented a new theology that was not consistent with Scripture as we know it, so he had to remove these books in order to make his theology palatable. Is that a good enough reason for you?

The facts stand far more in favor of these books than against them. For more reading, see:

God bless,
Jay

Posted by Jay at June 11, 2005 02:06 PM | TrackBack

Comments

With all due respect, AFAIK all Catholic versions of the New Testament have the books in same order as every Protestant version.

Posted by: ELC at June 13, 2005 09:56 AM

Something else to consider is that the Jewish community had two canons. One which included the 7 deuterocanonicals, one which did not. After the time of Christ, they opted for the one smaller canon because Christians were using the larger canon quite effectively to convert Jews to the Christian faith.

Posted by: Broken Record at June 14, 2005 11:37 AM

ELC,
You are correct that English translations of the protestant Bible today are the same as Catholic translations. However, I'm pretty sure that German protestant Bibles still end with Hebrews, James, Jude, and Revelation - moving Hebrews away from the other books by St. Paul and James & Jude from the Catholic epistles. During the time just after the Reformation, the Lutherans in particular were looking to remove these books. Because Calvin and the Anglican's didn't, they also did not (the Lutherans are responsible for the current German version with the book change).

Note that the Council of Trent actually moved Acts from the back of the Bible (just before Revelation) to it's present place. It also moved Hebrews to the end of the Pauline epistles.

God bless,
Jay

Posted by: Jay at June 14, 2005 01:39 PM

Thanks - interesting article.

pax et bonum

Posted by: John at June 15, 2005 11:01 AM

Jay,

A couple of points you mention (though you may be citing someone else) to make a case for the deuterocanonicals are distracting, and even un-necessary to make a convincing case.

First: “Jesus and His apostles never denounced the Septuagint or even suggested that it was erroneous. It was the predominant translation of His day, so if it included incorrect books you would expected Christ himself or one of the twelve to condemn it. But they choose not to and instead quoted from it.”

Second: “There are several New Testament verses which are considered paraphrases of deuterocanonical passages. For example, 1 Corinthians 15:29 references 2 Maccabees 12:44 (this is a particularly problematic passage for protestants); Hebrews 11:35 references 2 Maccabees 7 (the only place in the Old Testament where someone is tortured as described in Hebrews); and Revelation 8:3-4 references Tobit 12:15.”

Your first point is purely conjecture. It suggests that Jesus would have in the first place, been interested in culling through the Holy Scriptures to sniff out un-orthodoxy (“incorrect books”??). Anachronistic at least! Un biblical certainly! Jesus was interested in proclaiming the presence and coming of the kingdom of God – available NOW, and evident via his healing the sick, giving sight to the blind, making the un-clean clean, feeding the hungry, and casting out demons.

Likewise, the same holds for his disciples. Moreover, the authors of the Gospels were obviously not interested in the least with setting out “orthodoxy” with respect to a canon of scripture. Proclaiming the Good News, yes!

And finally on the first point, simply because Jesus and his disciples quoted and interpreted scripture from the LXX, does not imply that they thought every book in the LXX was “correct” (as you would have it) – let alone those that would become known to us as the deuterocanonicals.

The second point? Paraphrases do not necessarily imply citation from the deuterocanonicals themselves (though it could possibly be the case). It is more likely that the congruencies between these texts are not even paraphrases, but rather reflect shared theology a/o traditions.

Of course, none of these criticisms of your two points necessarily suggests that the deuterocanonicals “should not be read” or included in the canon. I think they should be…but what I think doesn’t matter either, since they are there! Ho logos ho agathos tou Theou!

Peace!

Posted by: Jack at June 16, 2005 09:17 AM

When I was a Protestant, I learned that ultimately there were two reasons that the Apocryphal works were to be excluded from the Canon: The Septuagint was originally written in Greek not Hebrew, and hat Jesus, the Apostles, and the Church fathers used the Masoretic text and not the Septuagint.

Later I learned at a Protestant College (Regent College) that research has unearthed Hebrew versions of the Septuagint which predate the Greek version and that Jesus, the Apostles, and the Church Fathers used the Septuagint and not the Masoretic text as was previously believed.

Sometimes I wonder if I have plenty of Protestants to thank for my return to the Roman Catholic Church. They shared much information with me which upon reflection probably helped me return home...

Posted by: Broken Record at June 17, 2005 11:16 AM

"I'm pretty sure that German protestant Bibles still end with Hebrews, James, Jude, and Revelation" -
Actually, it's just Luther's translation that is printed in that order. Another German translation, that is also used in Protestant/Lutheran churches has the books in a different order with Hebrews and James not all the way to the end.

Posted by: Swan at June 17, 2005 11:09 PM

Just wondering...I heard a rumor that Martin Luther changed a verse in scripture in order to flow with his theology about faith alone. Is this true? Which verse?

Posted by: Wondering at June 21, 2005 11:04 PM

Wondering,
The verse you are referring to is Romans 3:28:


Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith [alone] apart from works of law.

Luther added the word "alone" or "only" to the verse, which supported sola fides - his contention that we are saved by faith alone.

Ironically enough, the only verse in the Bible to include the words "faith" and "alone" is James 2:24, which condemns the belief that we can be saved by faith alone.

You can read more in Sola Fides 1: Are we Saved by Fatith Alone and in Sola Fides 2: Understanding Faith and Works. Also, to understand the phrase "Works of Law," read The Most Important Find in the Dead Sea Scrolls.

God bless,
Jay

Posted by: Jay at June 22, 2005 02:49 PM

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