January 24, 2004

Apologetics 101: A Response to Tony Warren

Under a recent article I wrote entitled, The Primacy of Peter: The Biblical and Historical Proofs for the Papacy one of our fellow bloggers posted the following article on Sola Scriptura. I thought it would serve as a good opportunity to show how one would go about debating this erroneous Protestant doctrine.

Allow me to begin by saying that I have no idea who Tony Warren is, but I can see that he is very sincere about this, though sincerely wrong, and, obviously, a firm believer in Sola Scriptura. Since our overriding goal here at Deo Omnis Gloria is to proclaim to the world the Truth I felt it absolutely necessary to engage in this debate. I hope all of you enjoy this and are able to use some of these points when discussing this topic with your Protestant friends and family.

The format shall be as follows: Mr. Warren's comments in normal font size, my comments will be in bold.

Is the Doctrine called Sola Scriptura Biblical?
by Tony Warren
First we need to define the term "Sola Scriptura!" It is a latin phrase which was coined by the Reformed Church during 1500's. It means "scripture solely" or the "scripture alone". By these words the faithful Christians of the day were standing up for the Biblical principle that the Holy Scriptures were God's inspired Word, and as such were the sole infallible rule of faith. It was the ultimate Authority for the Church, and not (as some had supposed) the Roman Church, it's Magisterium, or Pope. Since the Position of the Roman Church and those faithful Christians who Protested it (protest-ant), were mutually exclusive, both obviously could not be correct. If the faithful Christians were going stand for God's Word as the ultimate Authority, then there would have to be a "Reforming" of the Church. A restoring of the the Laws of God which the Church formerly held. Much like when a criminal reforms to obey the law which was always there. These faithful Christians understood they must return to the former reliance upon the authority of the Word of God, and thus, on October 31, 1517, "The Reformation" began when the German Monk named Martin Luther nailed his 95 Theses to the Roman Church door in Wittenberg Germany. The Church would lean upon Scripture alone as the ultimate Authority. Sola Scriptura!

I think it is important to understand that the doctrine of Sola Scriptura or "by Scripture Alone" was something never written about, discussed, or commonly held until the Protestant Revolution (as I've stated elsewhere on this blog, I refuse to call it a Reformation). It would not have been even a possible thought for the early Christians for the Bible, as Luther and all of us know it today, wasn't definitively compiled until the year 392 A.D. The Church on the other hand had been established while Jesus Christ still walked this earth as shown in Matthew 16:13-20. The Catholic Church has always upheld that Scripture is the inspired Word of God, yet the Church has never said that Scripture is the sole source of ultimately authority in matters of faith and morals, quite frankly because Scripture has never claimed as much. The Catholic Church does uphold and define the doctrines laid out in Sacred Scripture and does rely heavily on it as a source for knowing God and His plan for humanity as a whole and for each individual. The Church does strongly encourage all Catholics to "know" Sacred Scripture, yet the Church also recognizes the authority that has been given to Peter and the other Apostles and their successors, a doctrine that is supported by the Bible, history, and the writings of the Early Church Fathers, some of whom were writing before the Bible had been compiled. The various books of the Bible had been written but very few had all of them in one collection, thus the Catholic Church, throughout the 3rd century, actively worked to assemble them into one book. Thus we have the Bible as we know it today. It is crucial to understand that as Christians we are not a "people of the Book" rather we are a "people of the Church" with Christ as our Head.

Actually, calling it "Sola Scriptura" is a bit of a misnomer, because it is not a doctrine which teaches that we believe that there are not other authorities, nor that they have no value or place. Rather, it means that other authorities must be subordinate to the Word of God. Sola scriptura implies several things. First, that the Scriptures are a direct revelation from God, and as such, are His Authoritative Word. It is also a term which illustrates that the scriptures are all that is necessary for Church faith and practice. Not only that the scriptures are sufficient, but that they also are the ultimate and final court of appeal on all doctrinal matters. Because however good and faithful a Church leader may be in giving his guidance, all the fathers, teachers, popes, and councils are still fallible. The only infallible "source" for truth is the scriptures. Besides God Himself, Only His Word (the Scriptures alone), is infallible.

This is a good example of what I call a "false conclusion". Your comment:


First, that the Scriptures are a direct revelation from God, and as such, are His Authoritative Word. It is also a term which illustrates that the scriptures are all that is necessary for Church faith and practice.

is false for it is not a necessary conclusion that since Scripture is the "Authoritative Word" it must be "all that is necessary for Church faith and practice." In fact Scripture testifies to other divine authorities given to specific men. In Matthew's Gospel, Jesus says to Peter:

"I give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven" - Matthew 16:19

Then later to the Apostles He says:

"If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church, let him be to you as a Gentile and a tax collector. Truly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven" - Matthew 18:17-18.


Interestingly enough, in this last quote Jesus directly ties the authority of the Apostles with the authority of the Church. He does not say "show them the Bible and if they don't listen to the Bible have nothing to do with them". Jesus clearly points to the Church as the "the ultimate and final court of appeal on all doctrinal matters.
Likewise, Jesus establishes Peter and the other apostles with infalliable authority by giving them the authority to loose and bind both on earth and in heaven.

The Reformation Doctrine of Sola Scriptura ultimately pointed to a most basic concern of the faithful Church of that day which was expressed in their cry of Soli Deo Gloria, meaning, to God alone be the Glory! This expresses the true Christian perspective that God should receive the Glory and not men, and that this is done by keeping His Word as the final authority. The head of the Church is the infallible Christ, and not a fallible man. And so the Authority of the Church must likewise be His Word, and not the word of men. No matter how faithful, it's still the word of men and thus subordinate to God's word. What is called Sola Scriptura was, and is essential to true Christianity. For it's the difference between God's traditions and ordinances, and man's traditions and ordinances.

Again, Mr. Warren you continue to base your argument on false conclusions. How can you say that if one want to give all the glory to God, then it is the obviously conclusion that they will do that by keeping His Word as the final authority. I would agree that we give all the glory to God by keeping His Word but Jesus Himself chose certain "men" to reveal His will to us. At one point or another in your life surely some "man" or "woman" told you about God and that it was crucial to keep His Word. I am certain that no one simply gave you a Bible and said this is all you need, read it and live however you intrepret the Bible says to.
In terms of authority, referencing to your comment "the Authority of the Church must likewise be His Word, and not the word of men." I would fully agree but I would make the point that you are ignoring Jesus' words in Matthew's Gospel when He gave definitive authority to Peter and the apostles.

What some people call Oral tradition of the Church, is subject to change, development, degeneration, and deviation. There is absolutely no guarantee given by God or Scripture (His Word) that such an oral tradition would be preserved or was even needed. Indeed, 2nd Timothy chapter 3 strongly implies such a thing was not needed.

2nd Timothy 3:16-17

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for Doctrine, for Reproof, for Correction, for Instruction in Righteousness; that the man of God may be thoroughly Furnished unto all good works."

The conclusion that you apparently reach here is likewise false for Paul doesn't say here to ignore Oral Tradition, in fact he wouldn't say such a thing. For to do so would directly contradict what he had written in 2 Thessalonians 2:15 where he clearly states the opposite.


So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter.

He does say that Scripture is profitable for "teaching" (or doctrine as you have intrepreted it), but not conclusive and singular. He does not say it is "by Scripture Alone."

The Old Testament scriptures thoroughly furnished man of that day unto all good works, and Christ continually referenced it to prove truths. Jesus and others read and quoted Scripture (never any oral tradition, except to condemn it). That's not an insignificant point. And when Satan tested Jesus, Christ made reference to the Authority of scripture to prove his error.

Matthew 4:3-4

"And when the tempter came to Him, he said, if Thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread.

But He answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every Word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."
What proceeds out of the mouth of God is God's Word, and His Holy Word is written in the Bible. That is what man lives by. The Word of God, not the words of men, no matter how faithful they may appear. Jesus could have answered any way that He wanted, for He is God and an original and perfect answer He could have spoken afresh at any moment, but He instead pointed to what was already written in the scriptures as the reply to the adversary. I.e., that was the perfect answer! What God had inspired to be written, not the oral tradition of the day, but what had proceedeth from God's mouth and written in His Word. And this deferral to what was written in the scriptures is a lesson for all faithful Christians of what Authority we go to in order to prove truths. And Christ did this not only in answering un-biblical assertions, but also when presented with scripture that were taken out of context.
As a Catholic I fully believe that Scripture is the Word of God, yet "the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us...For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ (John 1:14,17). Jesus came into this world to lead us into the fullness of Truth, to conquer sin and death, and to establish His Church. Jesus did refer to Scripture often yet He did teach doctrines that were totally new and foreign to the Jewish people. He established Baptism as the necessary act of faith (John 3:1-5), insisted that His Body and Blood would be eaten by those who would have eternal life (John 6:47-58), He established the Church giving the authority to bind and loose on earth and in heaven to men He had chosen (Matthew 16:19, Matthew 18:18), and then He took it a step further and gave them the ability to forgive sins (John 20:23). In coming to this earth, Jesus did not make a "book" authoritative absolutely, He never said to His followers, "now go and write everything down and live only by that book". That would explain why the Apostles never compiled a book that contained all the books of the Bible as we know it today. What Jesus established, they built upon. Jesus never said, "You no longer need circumcision, yet Paul insisted, rightfully, that circumcision was no longer relevant. Paul is establishing a new tradition, one that was highly disputed even in Scripture (read Acts). The Church is the pillar and bulwark of truth (1 Timothy 3:15).

Jesus again defers to "other" scripture which qualified the scripture in question. For example;

Matthew 4:5-11

Then the Devil taketh Him up into the Holy City, and setteth Him on a pinnacle of the Temple,

and saith unto Him, if Thou be the Son of God, cast Thyself down; for it is written, He shall give His angels charge concerning Thee, and in their hands they shall bear Thee up, lest at any time Thou dash Thy foot against a stone.

Jesus said unto him, It is Written Again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God."
In other words, Jesus replies to scripture taken out of context with an additional scripture which clarifies (not denies) it. So we see the meaning is that, "Yes, God will watch over us, but that doesn't mean that we can test/tempt the Lord God!" The Authority of Scripture clearly delineated by our Lord, even in the face of other scriptures. The Perfect answer by Christ to combat a erroneous understanding of scripture was to quote additional Scripture to shed more light on it's true meaning! I.e., it was authoritative over what man might read and think was right by considering just one passage. Another passage qualified or explains more about the first. in this we bring reconciliation to both truths of these scriptures, denying neither.

I completely agree that Scripture lays the foundation of truth. Just look at the Blessed Trinity. No where in Scripture is the doctrine of the Trinity defined. Jesus states that the Father and He are One, but no where do we find Jesus explaining this common belief of Christianity. We never mention of the fact that the Trinity consists of three Divine Persons, that share one Divine Nature. Yet the Catholic Church reached this conclusion and clearly articulated this doctrine. I likewise agree that the overriding message of Scripture is "authoritative over what man might read and think was right by considering just one passage". Protestants for centuries have insisted on the doctrine of Sola Scriptura (Scripture Alone) and Sola Fides (Faith Alone). There is no biblical support for either of these heretical doctrines. Martin Luther added the word "alone" to Romans 3:28, he admitted as much. Yet this is the perfect example of a "man" taking one verse from the Bible and completely contradicting the entire New Testament. John 3:16-21, Romans 3:27-31, 6:1-4, 15-18, James 2:17-26 all testify to the fact that it is by faith and works that we are saved. In reference to Sola Scriptura I have already made multiple references to disprove this belief.

Matthew 4:8

"Again, the Devil taketh Him up into an exceeding high mountain, and sheweth Him all the kingdoms of the world, and the glory of them;

and saith unto Him, all these things will I give Thee, if Thou wilt fall down and worship me.

Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan; for it is written, thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and Him only shalt thou serve."
Again, Jesus presents scripture, God's Word, to counter Satan's ideas and visions. He says, It is Written! In other words, God says thus and thus! Never, God's Priests say, our leaders say, or oral tradition says! Jesus, our example, says, it is written! This is our example and the posture to take with anyone in order to try the Spirits to see whether they be of God. Compare their words to God's Word, countering their tradition with the authority of God's Word! The same can be said about any debate of doctrines by the Church. The correct principle in faithful Hermeneutics is to always defer to scripture, not to religious leaders or heads of the Church. Just as Jesus demonstrated in His debates with the religious leaders of His day, He appealed to the Scriptures, not to Congregational leaders, traditions or any Ecclesiastical body.

First, the One debating with Satan was Almighty God, of course He didn't have to defer to anyone else. He is the foundation of Truth and the One who established the Church.
Second, in this discussion I have continually used Sacred Scripture to show that Christ founded a Church and gave that Church authority on earth and in heaven. I have yet to see an argument from any Protestant supporting the opposite.

Matthew 21:42

"Jesus said unto them, did ye never read in the scriptures, the Stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner; this is the Lord's doing, and it is marvelous in our Eyes!"
Where was it written? The Scriptures, the Authority which furnished them unto all good works whereby they should have searched and known of Christ. Likewise, the New Testament logically follows that same principle of thoroughly furnishing us unto all Good works. We should understand that once completed, the New Testament scriptures (like the old was) is the guidebook of truth. It (old and new together) is a completed work, not a work or book in progress, or a incomplete work. We can't add to it or take away from it by oral tradition. The Bible is now one cohesive whole, complete thoroughly furnishing us. The doctrine of Sola Scriptura is a doctrine of faithfully following God's word above all other, and it is built upon solid ground.

This argument proves that the Church has been given divine authority on this earth. Though not willing to accept the Catholic Church as authoritative you are willing to accept the very book that the Catholic Church compiled. As I have stated elsewhere on this blog, what guarantee do you have that the Bible contains books and letters that were divinely inspired. There were many other books and letters that were reviewed by the Catholic Church at that time, like the Gospel of Thomas. They were rejected due to doctrinal issues within them and lack of validity that the Apostles and/or immediate followers wrote them. So ultimately, you accept the Church's authority to compile the Bible but refuse to accept it beyond that. How is it possible for a "fallible Church" to authoritatively define and compile the Bible? Wouldn't infallibility be an absolute necessity for this to happen? The answer is yes, and the proof is found in Scripture (1 Timothy 3:15).

There are some Roman Catholic church apologists that say that this doctrine was not even heard of until "the reformation" of the 16th century. This of course is an inaccurate and self serving claim, which can be proven false quite easily (even apart from scripture). Read this quote from the 5th century, 1100 years before the Reformation and see if you can glean who wrote it:


This Mediator (Jesus Christ), having spoken what He judged sufficient first by the prophets, then by His own lips, and afterwards by the apostles, has besides produced the Scripture which is called canonical, which has Paramount Authority, and to which we yield assent in all matters of which we ought not to be ignorant, and yet cannot know of ourselves.
Do you know who authored this affirmation of the principle of Sola Scriptura, the doctrine of ultimate authority of the scriptures? The Author is Saint Augustine. It's a quote taken directly from his book, "City of God" (book 11, Chapter 3). This unambiguous declaration by Augustine is about as definitive a statement for Sola Scriptura as any Protestant declaration I've read. And so we see this Roman catholic argument fails on both fronts. On both Biblical and Historical grounds, it fails miserably. The Word of God both is, and was the Supreme authority of the Church. The Apostles and all the faithful fathers deferred to it. it's not some new thing which Protestants invented.

I will likewise appeal to St. Augustine....


"In the Catholic Church, not to speak of that purest wisdom, to the knowledge of which a few spiritual men attain in this life, in such a way that, in its least part only, for they are but men, they know it without any doubting, while the rest of the multitude finds its greatest safety not in lively understanding but in the simplicity of believing, - not to speak, I say, of that wisdom which you do not believe is present in the Catholic Church, there are many other things which, most properly, can keep me in her bosom. The unanimity of peoples and nations keeps me here. Her authority, inaugurated in miracles, nourished by hope, augmented by love, and confirmed by her age, keeps me here. The succession of priests, from the very see of the Apostle Peter, to whom our Lord, after His resurrection, gave the charge of feeding His sheep, up to the present episcopate, keeps me here.
If you should find someone who does not yet believe in the Gospel, what would you answer him when he says: "I do not believe"? Indeed, I would not believe in the Gospel myself if the authority of the Catholic Church did not influence me to do so." - Taken from Against the Letter of Mani called "The Foundation", 397 A.D.
Do you really want to attempt to use Catholic bishops against the Catholic Church? We see that St. Augustine, a bishop of the Catholic Church, is quite clear on where authority lies.

Can traditions contradict God's completed Word?
Can the Scriptures contradict what some allege is oral "apostolic tradition", and have that tradition still be of God? The answer of course is a resounding, No! God is not the Author of confusion. The undeniable fact is, two infallible God-breathed sources cannot contradict each other. Else one of them is not infallible! That's a fact! Yet God's Scripture and Roman Church traditions constantly contradict each other. This should alert any faithful student of Holy Canon that one is neither infallible, nor of God. Just a few of the myriad of examples..
To answer the above question I will ask a question - Where does the Bible say that the Bible is the sole source of authority? The answer of course is that it doesn't. The Bible points directly to apostolic tradition (and succession for that matter). In Acts we find multiple "apostolic tradition" being put in place things that Jesus, the Word of God, never command. Please keep in mind that the book of Acts was written after the fact, so this book didn't exist before the events occurred. So where did the apostles read that they should appoint deacons(Acts 6:1-7)? Where did the apostles read that all Christians should sell their property and lay the money at the apostles' feet to distribute at will (Acts 4:34-37)? Where did the apostles read that circumcision was no longer necessary (Acts 15:1-11)? All of these were apostolic traditions. So what is the basis of your argument here?

The scriptures of God teach that the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23; Ezekiel 18:4,20), and all sin is purged and we are purified in Christ, on the cross. While Roman Catholic traditions teach that sin can be purged later, in a place called Purgatory (place of purifying).
I'll begin by quoting our friend St. Augustine again, this time from the City of God:


Temporal punishments are suffered by some in this life only, by some after death, by some both here and hereafter; but all of them before that last and strictest judgement. But not all who suffer temporal punishments after death will come to eternal punishments, which are to follow after that judgment.

- from St. Augustine's City of God written between the years 413 to 426 A.D.

And again,
That there should be some such fire even after this life is not incredible, and it can be inquired into and either be discovered or left hidden whether some of the faithful may be saved, some more slowly and some more quickly in the greater or lesser degree in which they loved the good things that perish, - through a certain purgatorial fire.
- from St. Augustine's The Enchiridion of Faith, Hope, and Love written in 421 A.D.

But let us return to Scripture as well. 1 Corinthians 3:15 and Luke 12:57-59 both point to the possibility of Purgatory. Scripture never says definitively that no such state exists, rather Scripture supports it.

The Scriptures of God teaches that the office of bishop and presbyter are the same office (Titus 1) but Roman tradition says they are different offices.

This is not true. A bishop is a priest, but not all priests are bishops only those selected by the Pope, the successor of Peter. Peter picked the first successor to the Apostles when he ordered the selecting of one among them to fill Judas' seat in Acts 1.

The Scriptures of God teaches that Christ offered His sacrifice once for all (Hebrews 7:27, 9:28,10:10), while Roman Catholic tradition corrects this, claiming that the Priest sacrifices Christ on the altar at mass.

The Catholic Church likewise teaches that Christ offered His sacrifice once for all, yet that Divine Sacrifce is an eternal Sacrifice as indicated in the Book of Revelations (5:6). At Mass, Catholic enter into that Mystery, we do not believe that Jesus is sacrificed again and again. You will not find one doctrine that teaches that.

The Scriptures of God teaches that we should not use vain repetitions in prayers (Matthew 6:7) thinking that we will be heard for our much speaking, while the Roman catholic traditions teach repeating hail Mary's in prayer as penitence, as if God indeed will hear us for our much repetition.

Again, you misintrepret the Scripture. Matthew 6:7 is referring to the pagan style of prayer that was popular in Jesus' day. They didn't know who to pray to so they rattled on hoping to pray to at least some "true" god. In giving us the "Our Father" (Matt 6:9-15), Jesus Himself gave us a prayer He intended us to repeat over and over again. If your intrepretation were correct this would be a direct contradiction. On another note, the "Hail Mary" is a biblical prayer, the entire first half of the prayer is taken straight from Scripture, the second half simply asks her to pray for us. I have yet to find a Scripture passage that says we are not allowed to ask others to pray for us.

The Scriptures of God teach that All have sinned except Jesus (Romans 3:10-12, Hebrews 4:15), while the Roman Catholic traditions claim that's not true, as Mary was also sinless.

It was the angel Gabriel who stated this first when he proclaimed to Mary, "Hail, full of grace"(Luke 1:28). It is both physically and spiritually impossible for a person to be full of grace if they have sin on their soul. Also, it would physically have to be, since Jesus would take His flesh from His Mother.

The Holy scriptures teaches that all Christians are Saints and Priests (Ephesians 1:1; 1 Peter 2:9), but Roman Catholic tradition has made Saints and Priests special cases and offices within the Christian community, dealt out by their Church.

The priesthood is not something dealt out. Any man who desires to follow Christ's call to priestly ministry can follow that path. Second, Saints are Christians who have led lives in true imitation of Christ. Their lives testify to their sanctity. We are all called to be saints.

The Scriptures of God says that we are not to bow down to statues (Exodus 20:4-5), but the Roman Catholic tradition makes no such claim, nor teaches against this practice.

Exodus 20:4-5 states graven images not statues and there is a distinct difference. A graven image is something material that is worshipped, God is condemning idol worship. Catholics do not worship statues. They serve as a reminder of those individuals. We treasure statues and paintings as any normal person would treasure pictures of family. When Catholics kneel before a statue, they are not worshipping the statue, rather they are praying. Kneeling is a common posture for prayer. We ask the saints and the angel to intercede for us and to help us, but we do not worship them. Big difference!

The scriptures of God says that Jesus is the only Mediator between God and man (1 Timothy 2:5), but Roman Catholic tradition claims Mary is co-mediator with Christ.

Mary is the Mother of God, therefore she is fundamentally necessary in salvation history. If Mary had not said "yes", what would have happened? Would the angel Gabriel have simply flown over to the next house? No, God chose Mary to bear the Son of God, so literally our salvation, Jesus Christ, chose to come to us through Mary. Catholics do not worship Mary nor believe in any way, shape or form that Mary is equal to Jesus, rather we acknowledge the reality of who she is and the role she plays in the history of our salvation.

The Scriptures of God says that Jesus Christ is the Rock upon which the Church rests, the foundation stone, and the Head of the Church (Luke 6:48, 1st Peter 2:7-8, Matthew 16:18), But Roman Catholic tradition claims that the foundation Rock of the Church is Pope Peter, and that the pontiff is the head of the Church, an aberration which in effect makes God's Church, a two headed Church!

I've spoken enough about this point, read the Bible and the Early Church Fathers, both support the Catholic teaching.

The Scriptures of God says that all Christians can and should know that they have eternal life (1 John 5:13), but Roman Catholic tradition says that all Christians cannot and should not know that they have eternal life.

You must be joking. The Catholic Church has always proclaimed the gift of eternal life that God offers to all, yet, in accordance with Sacred Scripture we hold that this great gift can be lost if one is unfaithful (Philippians 2:14-17, 3:12-16).

The Reformers understood clearly that the words of our Saviour Jesus Christ to the Pharisees, applied equally to those of their day:

"..thus you have made the commandment of God of non effect by your traditions!" -Matthew 15:6
Comparing these traditions with God's Word, sadly we also understand that this practice of unrighteousness continues today. You simply cannot have tradition and scripture contradicting each other and both be an infallible teachings of God. It's Confusion! Any Oral traditions passed upon the church is subject to the written Word of God, as it has always been. As it was for the Scribes and Pharisees. To deny this is tortuous of scripture!

Amen brother! Sola Scriptura and Sola Fides have been tested by the Word of God and found wanting and a direct contradiction, while the truths of Catholic doctrine that have been handed down through the ages remain in perfect accordance with Sacred Scripture.

Moreover, if there was an ongoing oral tradition (which there is not), it still would require a standard point of reference to check itself against, such as God speaking from the Mountain, or either the scriptures. True Christians (under God's direction), realize the danger of Church tradition becoming corrupted by fallible men (as had been the case with the Pharisees, and throughout history), and so faithfulness required and requires a scriptural basis. Christians led by the Spirit of God, understood the need for a Final authoritative checkpoint to which every person must be subject to God. Thus the importance of maintaining God's authoritative Word became of very great concern to them, even as it had previously with the Scribes maintaining the Old Testament books. If we were to totally ignore the facts of history that there was no Roman Church nor Pope making the claims he now does during the first three or four centuries (as the foremost Church historians overwhelmingly attest) and were to wrongly assume there was such a Church headed by an infallible pope as the Roman Church does, then this could not even begin to explain the importance they placed on maintaining the texts of the New Testament. For indeed there would have been no need to maintain them at all. One would only need to consult the infallible Pope, who, being under God's guidance would know the truth more certainly and accurately than the Apostle's written word. In 2nd Peter 1:19, where Peter said, "we have the word of the prophets made more certain, and you will do well to pay attention to it", that would be worthless!!

So what was the checkpoint for the Bible since it was compiled by "fallible men"? Yet oral tradition is not contradicted by the Bible it is supported as I have stated above (2 Thessalonians 2:15).

But of course, true Christians do realize that doctrine and oral tradition are indeed subject to change, development, degeneration, and deviation and "therefore" require a standard point of God Breathed reference to check itself against. Scripture supplied and continues to supply this Check! By this only we can try (test) the Spirits to know whether they be of God or not (1st John 4:1). How would we do this without the Authority of scripture? Tradition which proclaims what is non-scriptural cannot have absolute Authority; It may have the Authority of age, antiquity or large consent, but it does not have ultimate compulsion or necessity! In short, there is absolutely no proof whatsoever that any church, any tradition, or any pope or minister is equal to Scripture! Therefore, scripture is the Final authority to try the spirits with.

The more you continue to elaborate on this, the more you illustrate how ignorance of Scripture leads to greater error. Scripture points to the Church as the pillar and bulwark of truth (1 Timothy 3:15) and to the authority of Peter and the Apostles (Matthew 16:19, Matthew 18:18). Please show me one verse in the entire Bible that makes the claim that it is Sacred Scripture that is the final and sole authority. Your very claim is unbiblical.

Can Tradition be on a Par with God's Word?
Since the Bible "is" the Word of God (as even Roman Catholics whole heartily agree), then it's only rational and logical to profess that any other authority, cannot either contradict it, nor be on a par with it, nor be above it. I.e., there is no Authority higher than God. For who's Word supersedes God's? And no word is on a par with it. For who's word is as good as God's? Therefore, again logically and rationally speaking, in order for someone's word to be on a par with God's Word, the one speaking it would have to be God, or at the very least equal to God, or have God speak in a voice to him. The Only other alternative is to be "quoting" God from His Word! Neither the Pope, a Priest, nor anyone else is equal to God to have his word be on a par with God's Word, nor is God speaking to anyone from the smoke on the mountain today, or creating new oral scripture from a burning bush. The Bible is Complete, not incomplete. It needs no additions.

The Bible was compiled by the Church, pure and simple. Jesus didn't compile the Bible while on earth, nor did He ever command that it be done. Again, Matthew 16 contradicts all that you state here. You realize that you are carrying on about the same thing over and over again. Why such a lengthy argument without any other proofs? Thank goodness this isn't a prayer, for you may be guilty of vain repetition....
Only kidding ;-)

This of course is the tangled web in which the Roman Church finds itself by placing tradition on a par with God's Word. For unless something is God's Word, then it cannot be equal to God's Word. And simply saying God gave it is not sufficient for anyone to claim tradition is the Word, just as it wouldn't be for the traditions that the Pharisees held and Jesus condemned saying they made the Word of God of non effect.

The Catholic Church is in accord with Sacred Scripture here not stuck in some tangled web. 2 Thessalonians 2:15 is the downfall of your entire argument here.

True, God breathed His Word through the apostles and placed it in the form of the "Word of God" just as He did Old Testament scripture. But unless God is continuing to write his book (the scriptures) through the Roman Church, then that giving of the law through those who penned scripture has ended. If it has not, then the Pope must rip out the page of Revelation where God says don't add to His word, throw it away, Proclaim the Bible incomplete, and write down every infallible tradition he (supposedly) receives of God and place it on the pages of the Bible, as it is the Word of God! If tradition was on a par with God's Word, then it would be God's Word. In fact, then there would "again" be no oral tradition, as it would join written ordinances! Again, the tangled web that is woven by this un-biblical dogma.

Still wrong....Sola Scriptura is the un-biblical doctrine. God sent the Holy Spirit to safeguard and guide the Church (John 16:12-15).

More than that, tradition can become corrupt in the congregation of God (even as it certainly had with the Pharisees in Jesus' day -mark 7:9), and so common sense dictates that it simply cannot and must not be trusted as the ultimate authority, as the Word of God is. It is the words and doctrines of men, often unjustifiable in scripture, and contradictory to it. Not surprisingly, scripture bears out the truth that any tradition or ordinance must be subordinate to the Word. Jesus made it quite clear that we simply cannot hold to any traditions which are not subordinate to scripture, and that teaching such a doctrine is contrary to the gospel of Christ. Consider carefully..

Mark 7:7

"howbeit in vain they do worship Me, teaching for Doctrines the commandments of men, for laying aside the commandments of God, ye hold the tradition of men, as the washing of pots and cups, and many other such like things you do."
Clearly, and without ambiguity, Jesus is telling them that the tradition of their congregation is subject to the scriptures, and not vice versa. Any Christian doctrine which denies this, considering scriptures such as this one, is ludicrous. Jesus would not have condemned them for their traditions, if the tradition of God's people was on a par with scripture. It made no sense then, and it makes no sense now!

Yet Jesus also said, "The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses' seat; so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice." (Matthew 23:2-3).

Proverbs 30:5-6

"Every Word of God is pure, He is a shield unto them that put their trust in Him.

add thou not unto His words, lest He reprove thee, and thou be found a Liar!"
This is a solemn declaration that every word of God is tried and pure and that we are not to add to His words, lest we be liars. This law of God is an enduring restriction on God's revelation. Holy men of old who spake as they were inspired of God, wrote scripture. Those scriptures are now complete, it's not an ongoing book anymore. As God's people, under God's care, we have the Authority of God's Word. No other supreme Authorities or institution or object is so circumscribed. Note that in Ecclesiastes, after reflecting on the vanity of life, the Preacher summarizes our basic duty as to, "fear God and keep His commandments" (Eccl. 12:13). We must not add to God's Word by claiming traditions are God's Word. We keep His Word alone as the Authority.

Two facts:
1) Martin Luther is the only person in history who has ever added to the Bible, when he added the word "alone" in Romans 3:28, he likewise was the first to remove books from the Bible.
2) The verse you quote above was written before the Bible was compiled and applied directly to that book.

Understanding this, we therefore know that those who reject the Scripture today as the only infallible rule of faith and practice, ultimately are subordinating the Word of God to tradition by making congregational tradition and Leadership the interpreter of God's Word. It sets the words of men in the Church (no matter how faithful they may be) on a par with God's Word, and this is a dangerous and un-biblical thing to do, for every individual is ultimately responsible for what he believes, not the Church, and not his Priest or leader. Each man is judged for his own sin. We are all responsible to study the Bible, not leave that for others to do for us, and indeed Jesus himself said,

John 12:48

"He that rejecteth Me, and receiveth not My Words, hath one that judgeth him; the Word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the Last day!"
No one practicing the Catholic doctrine of Church Authority will be able to stand before God at the judgment and plead, "..the Pope and the Magisterium or my Priest told me to believe in this or that!" There is no such excuse available to men! We are to listen to God's Word, not their word. We therefore should carefully consider which Authority is really infallible, and therefore which one we should follow. God's Word (a given), or our Church tradition.

Therefore, I advise all Protestants to return to the Catholic Church, for the Catholic Church is the Church of Sacred Scripture. There will be no excuses for those who read through the articles on this blog and do not convert, for now you know the truth.

John 10;27

"My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow Me!"
What is the voice of Christ? Is it Church leadership, a Priest, the Magisterium, or is it the Word of God? Certainly this is the crux of the matter. And the truth is, it is Scripture alone that should be the final Authority in matters of faith, practice, and doctrine of the Church (not the only authority, but the final, or ultimate Authority).

But Jesus gave Peter charge of His sheep (John 21:15-17).

The Lord Jesus Christ taught us replete with examples of this principle. When the Pharisees argued with Jesus the points of the law of God concerning the Sabbath, did Jesus petition to tradition concerning it? Did he lean to ecumenical counsels? No, He leaned upon the written scriptures. ..as should we!

So why do we go to Church on Sunday? The Bible never says that it is okay to go to Church on Sunday verses the Sabbath, which is Saturday. Might this be an "apostolic tradition" that Protestants are following?

Matthew 12:3-5

"but He said unto them, have ye not read what David did when he was an hungered, and they that were with Him?"
Again, when they questioned him about the law of God concerning divorce..

Matthew 19:4-5

"And He answered and said unto them, have ye not read that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
and said, for this reason shall a man leave father and mother and shall cleave to his wife, and they two shall be one flesh."
Again, as the sadducees questioned Him concerning doctrines of the resurrection. Did Jesus appeal to congregational heads or tradition? No, He appealed to the written Word.

Matthew 22:31-32

"But as touching the resurrection of the dead, have ye not read that which was spoken unto you BY GOD saying,

I AM the God of Abraham, Isaac, and the God of Jacob. God is not the God of the dead, but of the Living!"
Again, when the man came to Him and asked what they must do to inherit eternal life, did Jesus say, talk to your Priest, get Church absolution, or follow the congregational traditions? No, he once again appealed him to look to the scripture.

Luke 10:26

"He said unto him, What is written in the law? how readest thou?"
You see, that is where they would find the answers! In the scriptures! Again, the Sadducees, denying the doctrine of the resurrection and trying to trap Jesus with a loaded question, tempted him in hopes to snare Him. Jesus could have there on the spot given them a legitimate and awe inspiring answer without an appeal to Scripture. It is not curious that He did not, but instead, as usual, appeals to scripture. He tells them,

Matthew 22:29

"..Ye do ERR, not knowing THE SCRIPTURES, nor the Power of God!"
Once again, Jesus rejects ecclesiastical tradition of the Sadducees in favor of "Sola Scriptura!" He says (as the Church says today of error), you are wrong because you don't really know the scriptures! In other words, the scriptures is what they should have known that would guide them into the truth, but they didn't know them, thus they were in error! It was not in the Congregational leaders and traditions, Jesus appeals to God's Word!

Jesus never says that Sola Scriptura is true....never. He does give authority to Peter in Matthew 16:19 and then later to the other apostles in Matthew 18:18.

Matthew 26:24

"The Son of man goeth as it is written of him: but woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born".
God, the Perfect teacher, yet He is appealing solely to Scripture to show them that He must do what is written. Sola Scriptura! Again, when the Jewish people sought to Kill Christ (-John 5:18, as they thought that they were God's Chosen People and had Eternal life), Jesus once again directed them to the real Authority where they would find the truth about the matter.

Jesus often taught things not in Scripture as mentioned earlier; i.e. Baptism, the Our Father, the forgiveness of sins, the necessity of eating His Body and drinking His Blood, etc. All doctrines that He gave us, yet not mentioned in Scripture before Christ.

John 5:39

"Search the Scriptures, for in them ye think ye have eternal life, and they are they which testify of me."
Why would Jesus be sending them to a non-Authoritative source for truth? ..He wouldn't! He directed them to scripture for the very same reason that the Bereans (acts 17:11) appealed to scripture. Because it (not the leaders or tradition of their congregation) was the ultimate Authority, as it was the infallible Word of God! Reformed Protestantism understands this wisdom most evident in Jesus Teachings!

Is that why Reformed Protestantism rejects the authority of the Catholic Church (Matthew 16, 18, 1 Timothy 3:15)? Is that why Reformed Protestantism no longer partakes in the Mass, thus failing to fulfill Jesus' mandate to eat His Flesh and drink His Blood (John 6:47-58)? If Sacred Scripture is the only source of divine authority on this earth then why do you fail to recognize these verses?

Roman Catholic Objections?
Most Roman Catholics object to Sola Scriptura from two distinct fronts. They argue that:

(#1) The New Testament references to oral "tradition" (II Thess. 2:15; II Tim. 2:2; II Cor. 11:2) illustrate the unbiblicalness of this teaching, and that
(#2) The Scripture nowhere teaches the doctrine.

Isn't it ironic that in both cases, they appeal to scripture as the "final proof or authority" that their tradition is correct? When it suits their purpose, they can always appeal to scripture (as in the keys of the kingdom, Peter the rock, translations of Mary's other Children, etc., etc.) as the final say, but when it doesn't suit their purpose, curiously, scripture isn't really the final Authority on doctrine.

Oh that's a good argument! Maybe we appeal to Scripture because we do consider the Bible as a source of truth, of paramount authority, yet not sole authority. We also have history, the writings of the Early Church Fathers, and the teachings of the Catholic Church to appeal to. A sound foundation with deep roots unlike Protestantism that currently is divided into over 20,000 denominations.

Nevertheless, the first argument is based on a simplistic and naive understanding of Sola Scriptura in that it presupposes the doctrine means there was never any oral tradition or teaching done. This of course would be ludicrous, as much of the New Testament was oral tradition or teaching of God before it was written down (see the Study on "Traditions of men vs. Traditions of God). I have yet to find anyone except catholics themselves who believes Sola Scriptura means what they purport, so this argument is the proverbial "Straw Man" argument. Things that Peter was inspired of God to say (oral tradition or ordinances) became the written "Word of God" as they were penned, just as the Old Testament was. But the Bible is Complete today, I.e., there is no book of Pope John, or Pope this or that, like there is a book of Peter or John or jude, etc. Because the Bible is Complete!

So now you claim that some oral traditions are acceptable, which would be a direct contradiction to your earlier argument. Yet how did the Christians who lived between the time of Christ and 392 A.D. get by before the Bible was Complete!? The reasoning behind Sola Scriptura isn't even logical nor can it explain the fact that until approximately 1600 A.D. no one accepted this false doctrine.

In so far as the second argument is concerned, as I've been demonstrating throughout this document, Scripture clearly teaches what has been labled "Sola Scriptura", from the beginning of it to the end. But it requires the Holy Spirit of God to discern this, just as any doctrine of scripture does. To simply say scripture doesn't teach it, despite the mountains of scriptures supporting it, is to stick ones head in the sand. With Jesus proving that what He says is true by directing us to the scriptures, it would seem that the Roman Church and Pope would likewise direct all to the scriptures. Instead, they claim an infallible authority "over" the Word of God itself, alleging that only they can interpret it. What nonsense!

No, nonsense is thinking that one's own interpretation is sufficient for knowing the truths of God. What it is is religious relativism...it all depends on how I interpret the Bible. This cannot be true, nor the will of God, for Jesus prayed that we might be one just as He and the Father are One (John 17:20-21).

It would seem to me that given the abundance of examples and illustrations of God, that the onus is on the RCC to "disprove" the sufficiency of scripture, rather than on the Church to prove it's sufficiency, because both sides agree scripture "is" the Word of God, and no other Authority is above God!

The Catholic Church has existed since Christ established it. I think the burden of proof falls on Protestantism since it didn't come into existence until approximately 1600 A.D. Know the Bible, know your history.

In order to disprove sufficiency of scripture, one would need to show us exactly where oral tradition differs from Scripture. If it doesn't differ, then what is the need of Oral tradition, and why does God say scripture thoroughly furnished them unto all good works? And If oral tradition is not found taught in the scriptures (because it presumably differs from), one must then prove that that "oral revelation" which was not found in Scripture, is apostolic. Despite claims of such proof by some, no such proof exists. Therefore, they cannot prove any Oral tradition handed down through tradition of a Church, is of God!

The fact is, the reason that the early Churches of the second century were so diligent in collecting and preserving the New Testament writings of Paul, John, Peter, and others in the first place, was to guard against oral teachings which could not be checked for accuracy once the apostles had all died. I.e., it's God himself inspiring them to preserve His Holy Word, as he did with the Old Testament Scriptures before the first advent of Christ. Sola Scriptura does not mean the rejection of every tradition, Sola Scriptura means that any form of tradition, must be tested by the higher Authority, and that Authority can only be God (and thus God's inspired Holy Word, the Bible).

And yet it was the Catholic Church that decided what was true and of God and what wasn't. Don't forget St. Augustine...he was thankful that he could rely of the guidance and authority of the Catholic Church


False Dichotomy between Scripture and Traditions of God
The Roman church error lies in creating a dichotomy between two things that cannot be separated, and then using that false dichotomy to deny Sola Scriptura.

1 Cor. 11:2

"Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you."
2 Tim. 1:13

"Hold fast the form of sound words, which thou hast heard of me in faith and Love which is in Christ Jesus."
2 Tim. 2:1-2

"Thou therefore, my son, be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus.

and the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also."
2 Tim. 3:14-17

"But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them;

and that from a child thou hast known the Holy Scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto Salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

all scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

that the man of God may be thoroughly furnished unto all good works."
There is simply nothing in these passages to support the idea of a separate oral tradition different from what was written. In order to deny Sola Scriptura, we must make the erroneous "assumption" that what Paul taught in the presence of many witnesses is different from what he wrote to entire Churches! Is such an idea founded in reality? Of course not! It's rationalization by the Roman church in support of oral tradition, not proof of it.

1st Thessalonians. 2:13

"For this reason also we thank God without ceasing, because, when ye received the Word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in Truth, the Word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe."
2nd Thessalonians 2:15

"Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle."
There is nothing future about this passage at all. Does Paul say to stand firm and hold fast to traditions that will be delivered? Does Paul say to hold on to interpretations and understandings that have not yet developed? No, this oral teaching which he refers to has already been delivered to the entire Church at Thessalonica. ..Now, what does oral refer to? We first note that the context of the passage is the Gospel and its work among the Thessalonians. The traditions Paul speaks of are not traditions about Mary, Purgatory, Repetitions of hail mary, or Papal infallibility. Instead, the traditions Paul refers to have to do with a single topic, one that is close to his heart. He is encouraging these believers to stand firm--in what? Was it in oral traditions about subjects not found in the New Testament? No, he is exhorting them to stand firm in what he has orally taught them of what is in the gospel. The Old Testament concealed is the New Testament revealed. There is simply nothing in these passages to support the idea of a separate oral tradition different from what was written or what Paul taught.

Does Paul say that all of the apostles' "oral traditions" were written down? No. Try again.

Note in 2nd Peter 3:2, Peter stresses the consistency of his teaching with that of the prophets, and of the other apostles. The unity of the Old Testament with the apostolic writings is illustrated in passages such as 1st Peter 1:10-12, and 2nd Peter 1:19-21.

One example of what is known as Sola Scriptura is made plain in the Abrahamic covenant. God again reveals Himself, apart from a divine expositor, and pledges Himself to fulfill His covenant (Gen. 15). When Abram seeks confirmation of God's Glorious Promises, the Lord confirms His divine Word by His divine Word!

Hebrews 6:13

"For when God made promises to Abraham, because He could swear by no greater, He sware by Himself.."
No Pontiff or magisterium or Sacred Tradition is invoked to verify God's Word. That's an important point not to be missed! The supreme Authority is the Lord's own testimony to His Word. No further appeal is possible. He didn't swear by the Priests, He swore by himself! Nothing else could confirm God's own Word but God Alone! Other than Himself, His Holy Word stands alone as the Supreme Authority. Sola Scriptura! Truly, what other authority is on a Par? ..or Higher? ..or Better? ..from a better platform? ..more Trustworthy? ..infallible? The answer is, None! Which is why Jesus always directed those with questions and objections to His teachings, to the scriptures. Both ancient theology endorses this, as well as the New Testament Church. As in the past, God's people may discern truth by going directly to the Scriptures: As God explained in the parable, when confronted with the question of how they would believe.

So the authority to bind and loose both on earth and in heaven isn't higher, isn't infallible? If something is bond both in heaven and on earth I would say that it is infallible.

Luke 16:29

"...they have Moses and the prophets, Let them hear them!"
God could have very easily said, they have the Church, the Church leaders, the magisterium, but He appealed to the scriptures as their source for Authority they should listen to. Christ even tells us why people get into errors in their doctrines. It's not because they lean unto understanding of the scriptures, but the exact opposite. It's because they do not understand them "because" they don't know them!

Matthew 22:29

"Jesus answered and said unto them, ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God."
Christ did not direct anyone to secondary explications or extra-Scriptural Hebrew traditions (though plentiful) as authoritative norms but He directed them continually to examine the Word of God itself. He says, "read the scriptures, it is written, search the scriptures, have ye not read, as saith the scriptures, that the scriptures might be fulfilled, as saith Isaiah, etc., etc." In the New testament, the exhortation to the Authority of scripture continues, (Rom. 15:4; Eph. 6:17; II Tim. 3:16; II Pet. 1:19; Rev. 1:3). Scripture commends those who examine the written revelation of God ("open minded, and more noble" -Acts 17:11) and illustrates that Christians have the ability to rightly divide and interpret scripture apart from any (supposed) infallible interpreter whether Church or pontiff (2nd Timothy. 2:15; Acts 17:11). Interpretation must come from the Word of God. As a little girl humbly, honestly and simplistically asked,


"how do we know it's REALLY God's Word, if we don't get it from God's Word?"
...and all God's people said, ...A M E N ! Out of the mouth of babes!
For knowing the nature of man, that indeed is a Good Question! Again, note the manner in which Christ refuted error. It was, "God said thus, but you say..." (Matt. 15:4-5; Mark 7:10-11) After Jesus mentioned, "God said," He then quoted Scripture. That was His manner in which He drew a clear, concise contrast between the written Word of God and the teachings of men. Let that be a lesson unto us.

1st Peter 2:21

"for even hereunto were ye called; because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow His steps."
We can fully understand the frustration of those who think Christians should listen to the Roman Church instead of God, and how it's annoying when we won't bow to that authority. But there is a very clear warning about making man the Authority in the Church in 2nd Thessalonians 2. Man must never "Rule" in the Temple of GOD! Only God can Rule (have Authority) over the Church. And God's Word is the Bible! ..so really, what's to debate?

The fact is, the only way that Man is going to stand with the righteous, overcoming in Christ, is if he has "kept" the Word of God as truth, and the word of man as error. Belief in the Word of God over man's words of tradition is what separates true believers from unbelievers. It's what separates those who can be deceived, from the Elect who can never be deceived into false Gospels. We know what the truth is because we know where the truth is. It's in the written Word from God, not the Church. The Church is the Pillar and ground of the truth, it's not the truth! It is merely the Witness of God's Truth. It bears faithful testimony to God's truth, and that's what makes it the Pillar and ground of the truth! Faithfulness to truth (which is God's Word, not man's word) makes us as a tree planted by the Rivers of Life. God's Word is true, man's tradition which contradicts it is not! As it is written,

Romans 3:3

"For what if some did not believe? Shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?

God Forbid! Yea, Let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, that thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged."
The truth is in God's Word, not in the words of Pontiff J., or Pastor B, or Church tradition Y, or even Tony Warren. The Truth is in God's Word. And if we don't read it in God's Word, then it's not God's Words. In determining which word has the Authority, let God be true, and every man a Liar!

Scripture declares that if you build on a foundation that is not the Word of God, and will not hear God's Word, then you build on a foundation which will crumble when the winds and the rains come (luke 6:47-49). God likens you to a foolish man. That's what God says! Build upon God's Word alone as the supreme Authority and you build upon a Rock! Sola Scriptura! A Firm foundation on the Word of God.

In closing I will say this, the danger of Sola Scriptura is that one can reach conclusions like Tony Warren's, conclusion that are not in accordance with Sacred Scripture nor shown throughout history. I quoted St. Augustine earlier in the post, yet there are hundreds of others within the first five centuries that testify to the authority of the Catholic Church. I challenge all of our readers to do your homework, know the truths of the Catholic Faith.

Sola Scriptura presupposes many things like the availability of paper in early society, the fact that all can read, the fact that all believers had a Bible (something we know was not possible), and the existence of the printing press. These are logical and rational problems for the doctrine of Sola Scriptura.

Christ founded a Church (Matthew 16) not the Bible, though He refers to Scripture, i.e. the Old Testament, He never mandates the compiling of all the books of the Old Testament with the books that hadn't even been written yet that would make up the New Testament. It is in the Catholic Church that we come to know and live the fullness of Truth.

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by Joe at January 24, 2004 02:05 AM | TrackBack

Comments

Joe-

A very interesting debate. My position is quite similar to Tony's. I thought you might be interested as to why I find your points unpersuasive.

As I read "that thou art Peter, and upon this rock" in Matthew 16:18 the phrase "this rock" refers to revelation by the Father. Otherwise Jesus would have said something such as "like a rock."

In Matthew 16:19, "I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven" does not imply that those keys are exclusive to Peter, or that the path to heaven, meaning salvation, is in any way different than described elsewhere as being choosen by the Father before the foundation. It simply means that Peter has the knowledge and is inspired to write the Truth.

I also read 2 Thessalonians 2:15 differently from you. You give the translation as

"So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter."

The other translations I have looked at say "by this letter." That, together with the phrase "taught by us" restrict the traditions to those given by a select few. As you say there may be unwritten traditions from the Apostles, but I do not see authorization to a specific church structure to change those.

I think your reference to Matthew 18:17 as saying that the church has final authority on doctrinal matters is reaching too far. The church is offered as a body to help judge between two people that disagree over whether a particular act is a sin. That does not give the Church the authority to say what is a sin. It is the same as saying a jury can decide matters of fact but not of law.

Most of the remaining differences have to do with whether the church referenced in the Bible is the Catholic Church, or simply the congregation. From my perspective you seem to take the former interpretation, and thus the conclusion is circular.

Later you make the argument that the Catholic Church is infallible because it assembled the Bible. I am a bit fuzzy on Bible history, but the flaw in your logic I see is that whatever form Christendom was in at that time, that form was not included in the Word of God.

Posted by: Jon Cohen at January 28, 2004 10:28 PM

Jon,
A couple of quick comments. The word "Peter" in Aramaic (which Jesus was speaking) means "Rock". So what Jesus really did was say, "You are Rock and on this Rock I build my Church." This is pretty straightforward. Note that Peter is the only person Jesus renamed and the only one He was speaking to. You can't just water down Jesus' words because you don't agree with them.

Next, 2 Thess 2:15 should not be translated that way. I'd be interested in which translation you found this - it's a decidedly protestant bend in the actual words (Similar to Romans 3:28).

Next you suggest that the Church of the Bible was simply a congregation, rather than a physical church. But the Bible calls the church the "pillar and foundation of Truth" (1 Tim 3:15) and as you noted, suggests that you go to the Church to point out sin. How can this possibly be a congregation? A congregation that is the pillar of Truth? I recommend also you study history. You'll find that from the earliest Christian writings there was no question that the "church" of the Bible was the Catholic Church. You can also read some other articles on this site where we discuss the evidence.

Finally, we get to infallibility. The point here is that there were numerous Christian books floating around and in the fourth century the Catholic Church combined the appropriate ones into the Bible. If you take the Bible as infallible, then you must also assume that the creation of the Bible was infallible. Why was the gospel of Peter left out? Why was Revelation included? These were big questions of that day. Note also that Martin Luther edited your Bible by adding a word ("alone" in Romans 3:28) and by removing a bunch of books that clearly taught Catholic doctrine (he was trying to make a new religion, after all). If you believe the Bible was infallible, where does the Bible say that Luther could do this? You should really think about this.

God bless,
Jay

Posted by: Jay at January 28, 2004 10:59 PM

Jay,

Thank you for challenging me to think more carefully about these points. The question in Matthew 16:18 is what is the rock. I did a search on rock and faith together in the NIV and got one hit:

Deuteronomy 32:3-4 (NIV) "I will proclaim the name of the LORD. Oh, praise the greatness of our God! He is the Rock, his works are perfect, and all his ways are just. A faithful God who does no wrong, upright and just is he."

If the Lord is the correct interpretation of the word rock, then Jesus is naming Peter for receiving a revelation from the Father as described in Matthew 16:17. It makes much more sense for Jesus to build his church on the Lord rather than Peter.

Regarding 2 Thes 2:15, I cannot find where I got the idea it said "this letter," so it is likely my error. There is an important difference between the Catholic and Protestant translations however.

The New American Bible says

"Therefore, brothers, stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught, either by an oral statement or by a letter of ours."

Though my Latin is rusty, I looked up the Vulgate:

"itaque fratres state et tenete traditiones quas didicistis sive per sermonem sive per epistulam nostram"

The New Revised Standard Version is closer to how I read the Vulgate.

"I see the stand firm and hold fast to the traditions that you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by our letter."

There is of course an important difference between "a letter of ours" and "our letter."

I can't read Greek so I can't check the original.

On to 1 Timothy 3:15 "if I am delayed, you will know how people ought to conduct themselves in God's household, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth." (NIV)

After reading Deuteronomy 32:3-4, I parse this as "living God, the pillar and foundation of the truth."

For Romans 3:28, the NIV says "For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from observing the law." The Vulgate is "arbitramur enim iustificari hominem per fidem sine operibus legis" The KJV also does not have the word alone. Using the word "alone" to capture the meaning of the Latin "sine" is not totally unreasonable to me. I don't know where you say the word "alone" appears, but would it have been written in German?

Regarding infallibility, at every step the books of the Bible where written by a sinful man. It was God that caused the resulting written word to be without error. He would not have needed an infallible Church to achieve that result.

Posted by: Jon Cohen at January 29, 2004 10:02 PM

One more thought, we know the Old Testament was without error at the time Jesus preached, because he did not change anything in it. The process of perfection was already taking place before the Catholic church could have been established.

In Christ,

Jon

Posted by: Jon Cohen at January 29, 2004 10:13 PM

you go Jon!

Paul

Posted by: Paul Baccus at January 30, 2004 10:51 AM

Jon,

I'll address your last comment first, in reference to the Old Testament and its completeness. Why did Martin Luther find it necessary to remove multiple books from the Old Testament? Why do Protestants adher to his interpretation of the Bible, rather than the canon of books decided upon in 392 A.D.?

In reference to your comment on 2 Thes 2:15, regardless of the wording of the verse the implication remains the same (I used the Revised Standard Version and the New Vulgate). If Paul was saying "a letter of ours" or "our letter" who was he referring to? It is believed that Paul wrote this between 50 and 52 A.D. So, he most certainly wasn't referring to the Bible as we know it today for many of the books hadn't even been written. Not to mention that neither Luke nor Mark were Apostles. Paul, himself, wasn't one of the original twelve. So what made them authorities? The Bible itself is the inspired Word of God, no doubt, but where does it say that it is the sole source of authority?

In reference to the keys...biblically speaking...who else are the keys given to? What we do know, from the Bible (Matthew 16:19) is that Jesus said directly to Peter, "I (Jesus) give you (Peter) the keys of the kingdom of heaven." He doesn't then turn to the other apostles and say "don't worry guys...I've got a set for each of you too." You know? So, I think you are reaching if you attempt to imply that the keys were given to others as well. Also, it is no small thing that after His Resurrection, it is only Peter that Jesus personally pulls aside and commands to "feed His sheep"(John 21:9-19). This one on one context is only used with Peter.

Now on to Peter's name... An interesting thought is that there is another place in the Bible where a "mere man" responds to God with "heroic faith" and has his name changed. I will quote from the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible on


Matthew 16:17-18 And Jesus answered him, "Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jona! For flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father who is in heaven. And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it.

Jesus blesses Peter and elevates him to be the chief patriarch of the New Covenant. Parallels between Genesis and Jesus' words(16:17-19) suggest that Peter assumes a role in salvation history similiar to Abraham's. (1) Both are blessed by God (Gen 14:19); (2) both respond with heroic faith (Heb 11:8); (3) both receive a divine mission (Gen 12:1-3); (4) both have their names changed (Gen 17:5); (5) both are called a "rock" (Is 51:1-2); and both are assured a victory over the "gate" of their enemies (Gen 22:17).

So interesting parallels here. Another not is the meanings of the names. Abraham literally meant "the father of a multitude of nations". Why does God do this? Because that is exactly what and who Abraham will be. The same applies to Peter. Jesus changes his name to Peter, which literally means "Rock" because that is exactly what He (Jesus) intends Peter to be. Abraham's name was changed when God established a "new covenant" with Abraham, Peter's name is changed when Jesus establishs "the New Covenant" to defend it and protect it through traditions which we are taught by the "Church" either by word of mouth or by letter.

You make the comment that you are a little fuzzy when it comes to Bible history, so I would highly recommend you spend some time studying it. I find the commentaries of the Early Church Fathers to be particularly interesting. It is always good to hear what Christians in the first few centuries understood by reading the various letters that would one day be compiled into the Bible. I say Bible history but more appropriately I should call it Church History for the Early Church Fathers acknowledge in "writing" that they are Catholic, but like the Catholic Church today, show a deep understanding and love for the Scriptures.

I hope this provide additional insights for you.

On a side note - Paul, Paul...have you come up with any answers to my questions yet? ;-)

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by: Joe at January 30, 2004 09:49 PM

Joe,

The comparison to Abraham is a strong argument, but I'm not convinced. God was abundantly clear in the case of Abraham. In the case of Peter it is ambiguous. The English phrase "this rock" seems an odd way to talk to a person, but natural if referring to some other entity.

I'm confused by your comment that Jesus said only to Peter to "Feed my sheep." Doesn't he say "feed my lambs" first to Simon Peter?

The verse John 21:19 where Jesus tells Peter to "Follow me!" unto death seems to me to be an alternative explanation why Jesus would want to comfort Peter with the knowledge that he would be in heaven, because he had been given the keys.

It would take me a bit of research to answer your question about the Protestant selection of books. Or is that just a rhetorical question?

Jon

Posted by: Jon Cohen at January 31, 2004 01:45 AM

The removal of certain books by Luther was a serious question. I know his reasoning but I think it is good for any person, who is serious about Bible history, to look into this.

In reference to Peter in John 21, I'll quote another biblical commentary, this time from the Navarre Bible (using the Revised Standard Version):


When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, "Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?" He said to him, "Yes, Lord; you know that I love you." He said to him, "Feed my lambs." A second time he said to him, "Simon, son of John, do you love me?" He said to him, "Yes, Lord, you know I love you." He said to him, "Tend my sheep." He said to him the third time, "Simon, son of John, do you love me?" Peter was grieved because he said to him the third time, "Do you love me?" And he said to him, "Lord, you know everything; you know that I love you." Jesus said to him, "Feed my sheep." Truly, truly, I say to you, when you were young, you girded yourself and walked where you would; but when you are old, you will stretch out your hands, and another will gird you and carry you where you do not wish to go." (This he said to show by what death he was to glorify God.) And after this he said to him, "Follow me." - John 21:15-19

15-17. Jesus Christ had promised Peter that he would be the primate of the Church (cf. Mt 16:16-19 and note on same). Despite his three denials during our Lord's passion, Christ confers on him the primacy he promised.
"Jesus questions Peter, three times, as if to give him a triple chance to atone for his triple denial. Peter has learned his lesson from the bitter experience of his wretchedness. Aware of his weakness, he is deeply convinced that rash claims are pointless. Instead he puts everything in Christ's hands. 'Lord, you know well that I love you'"(J. Escriva,Friends of God, 267). The primacy was given to Peter directly and immediately. So the Church has always understood - and so Vatican I defined: "We therefore teach and declare that, according to the testimony of the Gospel, the primacy of jurisdiction over the universal Church of God was immediately and directly promised and given to Blessed Peter the Apostle by Christ our Lord. [...] And it was upon Simon Peter alone that Jesus after his resurrection bestowed the jurisdiction of chief pastor and ruler over all his fold in the words: 'Feed my lambs; feed my sheep'" (Pastor aeternus, chap. 1).

This is in turn supported by the book of Acts and then the writings of the Early Church Fathers.


Nor does the kingdom of heaven belong to the sleeping and the lazy; rather, the violent take it by force... On hearing these words, the blessed Peter, the chosen, the pre-eminent, the first among the disciples, for whom alone with Himself the Savior paid the tribute, quickly grasped and understood their meaning. And what does he say? "Behold, we have left all and have followed you!" - St. Clement of Alexandria, Who Is The Rich Man That Is Saved?, 190-210 A.D.

Peter, upon whom is built the Church of Christ, against which the gates of hell shall not prevail, left only one Epistle of acknowledged genuinity. Let us concede also a second, which, however is doubtful. - Origen, Commentaries on John, 226 A.D. (interesting note here, notice how Origen calls into question the authenticity of the second epistle of Peter, yet the Church decided in 392 A.D. that it was indeed inspired by God and therefore should be included. No one questions it today, but Origen was writing before the compilation of the Sacred Scriptures. The Church exercised its God given authority and determined it should be included.).

And again He says to him after His resurrection: "Feed my sheep." On him He builds the Church, and to him He gives the command to feed the sheep; and although He assigns a like power to all the Apostles, yet He founded a single chair, and He established by His own authority a source and intrinsic reason for that unity. Indeed, the others were that also which Peter was, but a primacy is given to Peter, whereby it is made clear that there is but one Church and one chair. So too, all are shepherds, and the flock is shown to be one, fed by the Apostles in single-minded accord. If someone does not hold fast to this unity of Peter, can he imagine that he still hold the faith? If he desert the chair of Peter upon whom the Church was built, can he still be confident that he is in the Church? - St. Cyprian of Carthage, The Unity of the Catholic Church, 1st ed., 251 A.D.

Before His suffering the Lord Jesus Christ, as you know, chose His disciples, whom He called Apostles. Among the Apostles almost everywhere Peter alone merited to represent the whole Church. For the sake of his representing the whole Church, which he alone could do, he merited to hear: "I will give you the keys of the kingdom of Heaven." - St. Augustine of Hippo, Sermons, 391-430 A.D.

There are many other comments made like these throughout the writings of the Early Church Fathers. Protestantism in its separation from the Catholic Church has lost much of the Church's history, and I would say rightfully so. A history that contradicts one's very foundation is normally undesirable and would naturally be ignored. As Catholics, we on the other hand, can study Church history and find even greater confidence knowing that our Church was founded by Christ on Peter. We have a unitive leader and shepherd on earth in the Pope. A man who, without a doubt, is possibly the holiest, most influential man of the past century. Pope John Paul II has truly lived up to the expectation laid out by Christ. He has "feed His sheep."

Again, I hope this helps.

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by: Joe at January 31, 2004 07:18 AM

The commentary on Luther's "removal of books" from the Old Testament is interesting. While I naturally support the authority of the Church to canonize Scripture, I think we need to be sure that we play fair in reviewing history.

Unlike the NT, no council of the Church officially canonized the OT until the Council of Trent in the 16th Century, well into the Protestant Reformation. In fact, historically speaking, Trent can be viewed as a response to what Luther had already done. In other words, Luther had already declared the seven apocryphal books "good" but not "inspired" BEFORE Trent rendered the Church's official position.

Looking at the OT historically, there is no question that the Catholic Church was using the apocryphal literature as part of the standard canon long before Luther was on the scene. However, throughout the first 1100 of the Church, and beyond, the OT was NOT clearly defined. While most of the Church accepted the seven books, not all parts did. And, some parts of the Church accepted even more books. As modern day proof, just check the Bibles of our Orthodox brethren, which includes 3 Maccabees and the Prayer of Manasseh.

The whole variety of treatment originates from the Septuagint (or LXX or "the Seventy"), which was utilized by the Greek speaking writers of the New Testament. The LXX was the Greek translation of the Hebrew canon. It is not known with precision when it was translated, but there is certainty that there existed many different versions. Some versions included more books than others. Interestingly, some portions of the LXX are not considered canonical by any Christian denomination (i.e. 4 Maccabees, though there is evidence that even portions of the very early Church considered it canonical).

In any event, the early Church spread like fire in the first century, always using the LXX as its Scripture. Seeing the power of this new branch of Judaism, the Jewish establishment sought to curtail its spread. Thus, the scribes came forward with their own "canonization" of what was truly inspired Scripture, stating that the new Christians had completely gotten it wrong by using the contaminated Greek versions. The scribes stated that only the original Hebrew translations were truly the Word of God. More importantly, however, was that they came out with a limited set of books considered canonical--that list is what Martin Luther accepted as the OT canon. He believed that the wise old scribes, imbued with their knowledge of history, would have more accurate knowledge of which books were truly canonical (as opposed to the Jewish converts and laymen who filled the ranks of the early Church).

I guess history has a good sense of humor, because Protestants (the children of Luther) reject any attempts to value religion by resort to history. I guess most think that history means lack of inspiration from the Holy Spirit. In any even, I have never heard a Protestant try to argue the historicity of their religion. :) I wonder what Luther would have said about that?!

In Christ,
Dave

Posted by: Dave at January 31, 2004 02:54 PM

Jon,
Just to follow up on your response to me - I'll leave out the points Joe and Dave addressed.

First with 1 Tim 3:15, you can't possibly read this as "living God, the pillar and foundation of Truth." Anyone, and I do mean anyone can see that is a perversion of what Paul clearly wrote. There is no question that Paul was calling the "church of God" the "pillar and foundation of Truth." You can't take Scripture out of context just because you don't like what it's saying!

The original (and I'm pretty sure most current) King James Bible wrote that man was saved by "faith alone apart from works of law." There is a big difference between this and your version. If you leave out the alone (as Paul did), it leaves open that James was correct in discussing the necessity of works. If you include the "alone," it creates an opposition with James - the two writers in clear contradiction. Luther readily admitted adding the word as he threw out the other books he didn't like (some clearly teach prayer for the dead and purgatory).

Just to make sure we addressed everything.

God bless,
Jay

PS - Dave: thanks for posting. We're enjoying the comments and insights you add to the blog!

Posted by: Jay at January 31, 2004 11:19 PM

Again I regret that I cannot read the Greek, but looking at the Vulgate, which does not have punctuation, it is easier to see that 1 Tim 3:16 is a continuation of the description of the living God that is begun at the end of 3:15. The focus of the text in verse 16 has shifted from away from deacons and wives and onto God.

This reading is obviously quite at odds with Catholic doctrine, and yet the more I look at it this way the more naturally it reads.

What is more surprising to me is that the Catholic Church would choose as the source of its infallibility a chapter that talks about how bishops and deacons must be married and which is followed, in the first 3 verses of the next chapter, by a condemnation of teaching that forbids marriage. Talk about ignoring context!

Posted by: Jon Cohen at February 2, 2004 11:07 PM

Jon,

I'm finding your train of thought confusing. In 1 Timothy 3:15, the active subject of the sentence is "household of God, which is the Church of the living God,the pillar and bulwark of the truth". In the context of the this letter it makes sense. God is Truth therefore it naturally follows that the Church of the living God would be the upholder (pillar) and defender (bulwark) of truth.


"Pillar and bulwark of the truth": those aspects of the building would have been very meaningful to Christians familiar with the great pillars of the temple of Jerusalem (cf. 1 Kings 7:15-52) or the columns of the huge temple in Ephesus dedicated to the goddess Artemis. They very graphically convey the idea of the Church's solidity and permanence in the role of safeguarding and transmitting the truth, for "the deposit of revelation[...]must be religiously guarded and courageously expounded." - Biblically commentary from the Navarre Bible.

In reference to your next point...Deacons do marry in the Catholic Church. It doesn't say that a bishop must be married, rather that a bishop must be a "husband of one wife"(1 Tim 3:2). What he is saying is that a bishop should not have more than one wife.

The reason for Paul's reference to the forbidding of marriage in 1 Timothy 4:3 is due to the fact that some groups (Gnostics) did forbid it. To say, as you assumingly do, that Paul is implying that those who chose to be celibate for the kingdom of God aren't being obedient to God's desire is not only reaching, but unbiblical. Paul clearly encourages celibacy in 1 Corinthians 7:8-9.

To be completely honest your attempt to use Scripture to prove this point is a bit disturbing...are you honestly seeking Truth or attempting to prove some point about the Catholic Church? What you seem to fail to acknowledge is the existence of the Church prior to the Bible. The Church existed without the Bible but the Bible came into being through the Church. This is clearly attested to in Sacred Scripture itself. Paul converted and became a member of the Church well before he ever wrote a single epistle. The same is true of all the Apostles and disciples that would write the other books the Church would select to compile the New Testament.

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by: Joe at February 3, 2004 07:03 AM

Jon,

I would like to add a couple of things to Joe's comment. One of the key barriers for me in coming to the Church was actually the forbidding of priests to marry. Let me explain how I finally recognized the Truth behind my Protestant veil.

First, Joe is correct that some groups actually forbade marriage. One need not look to the Gnostics of old. The Shakers of the 18th Century, for example, considered marriage an institution of the "world" and held that any sexual contact between a man and a woman was unclean and sinful. This type of universal prohibition has resurfaced many times in history.

Contrast the universal prohibition on marriage/sexuality, with the Catholic prohibition on priests and nuns only (i.e. a very small percentage of the Catholic population). Clearly the Catholic Church does not forbid "men" to marry.

The second point is that just as Paul did not declare priestly marriage to be required (see Joe's comment), so the Catholic Church does NOT in fact hold that priestly celibacy is required. The history is relatively complex, but suffice to say priestly abstinence was always practiced by the early Church. In the 7th Century, the Eastern and Western churches took different paths on this practice, the Western towards the more celibate lifestyle. By the 11th Century, priestly celibacy was the de facto, though not de jure, rule in the Western church. It was, however, only in the early 20th century that canon law actually made it impermissible for a married person to receive Holy Orders.

That having been said, this prohibition is a "discipline" of the Church, rather than a "doctrine" or a "dogma". What does that mean? The latter is typically defined as an official teaching of the Church received from God Himself, whether through revelation, Tradition, or Scripture. The former is a rule established by the Church for the pursuit of holiness, but not something that is immutable or objectively true.

By way of example and illustration, married Anglican priests are permitted to receive Holy Orders if they are reconciled to the Church. Also, priests in the Eastern Catholic tradition may be married. These are exceptions to the rule, which was instituted originally for the purpose of focusing the priesthood on whom it is that they serve and for counteracting abuses that were occurring (i.e. priests having many children and leaving them Church property as an inheritance).

What this all means is that the Church does NOT teach that it is God's command that all priests be celibate. Rather the Church teaches that this rule most effectively creates a priesthood focused on the Lord. Many Catholics themselves are questioning this rule, especially in light of recent scandals. The "questions" are not inappropriate considering that priestly celibacy is a discipline. (Contrast with "questioning" the truth of the Trinity, which is inappropriate as that is a dogma of the faith.)

More conservative Catholics are often more militant on the priestly celibacy issue for two reasons. First, they value priestly celibacy and readily appreciate its benefits. Second, they are reacting to the lack of reverence and respect for the Magisterium of the Church demonstrated by much of the laity who would so casually denounce the decisions of their God-given authorities. Nonetheless, the rule is subject to being changed by those authorities if they, acting with the wisdom and insight of the Holy Spirit, believe that to be in the best interests of the Church and its mission to evangelize the world and edify God. The rule itself, however, does not contravene the teachings of St. Paul. In fact, it is in pursuit of Christ's preference for eunuch's for the Kingdom of God. I hope that helps a little bit, but I would be glad to continue the dialogue.

In Christ,
Dave

Posted by: Dave at February 3, 2004 02:12 PM

Dave - Thank you for correcting a misconception I had about the status of priestly celibacy.

Joe - Forgive me if I have strayed from proper discourse, I am simply trying to be consistent with the words at the top of this page:

"I thought it would serve as a good opportunity to show how one would go about debating this erroneous Protestant doctrine."

My impression of your arguments is that they are based largely on interpretations of passages that are grammatically ambiguous. Any disparaging of the Catholic Church I have done is has been in the spirit of lively debate.

As for 1 Timothy 3:15, I am maintaining that the phrase "pillar and bulwark" is grammatically in apposition to the adjacent noun "living God." Not only is God Truth, He is also the Rock (Deuteronomy 3:4), which to me does not conflict with being the pillar of truth.

We can agree to disagree about any of this, but I for one enjoy the challenge of seeking the truth in thus way. I will not be offended if you wish to lay down additional groundrules.

Posted by: Jon Cohen at February 4, 2004 12:08 AM

Jon,

No offense taken in regards to your comments, I just prefer knowing what point a person is attempting to make when engaging in "lively debate".

Though to you "my arguments are largely based on intrepretations of passages that are grammatically ambiguous," they are supported by the Gospels (Matthew 16:16-19, not much ambiguity there) and the Early Church Fathers. I have yet to see on this blog or anywhere else one biblical or grammatical argument to support the idea that the Bible alone is the sole source of authority and truth.

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by: Joe at February 5, 2004 12:03 AM

Jon,

I for one think that your reading of I Timothy is quite plausible from an objective perspective. Of course, I do not know the way it was written in Greek, and that might demonstrate clearly which interpretation is appropriate, though perhaps not.

Nonetheless, I would like to encourage you to consider other Biblical passages for the point that Joe is making. One such example is Matthew 16:13-20. Jesus basically says, "Simon, you are rock, and on this rock I will build my Church." Even as a Protestant, I personally used your same common sense reading skill to recognize that Jesus is saying that He would build his Church on Peter. Jesus clearly associates Peter as the "rock" and then states that He would build His church on "this rock". To suggest that Jesus would switch the meaning of "rock" midsentence without so much as the slightest indication that he was doing so is non-sensical. Let me know what you think.

A second passage is Galations 2:9 where Paul acknowledges that Peter, James, and John are reputed to be the "pillars" of the Church. Some argue that Paul rejects this view, though he never says as much. Even if he did not embrace it, the passage clearly demonstrates that the Church at large did view the apostles as "pillars".

Most appropriately, however, is Ephesians 2:19-22 where St. Paul states that the Church ("God's household") is built on the foundation of the apostles with Christ as the "chief cornerstone".

The point of all this is to show that even the Bible demonstrates that the apostles are the foundation upon which the Church is laid. Many Protestants feel that this detracts attention from Christ, but as the passage in Ephesians demonstrates, it does not. There are different parts of the Body, some of whom have great authority, most of whom have limited authority. All of the authority, however, traces back to the foundation of the Church, the apostles. Their authority in turn derives exclusively from Christ, the chief cornerstone. And Christ's authority rests exclusively on the Father.

In other words, every bishop points back to the bishop that appointed him. This traces back to the apostles, which traces back to Christ, which traces back to God. The various Protestant denominations cannot claim this chain of authority, because they have rejected it.

A good example would be if a Private in the Army told his Lieutenant, "I will not follow your orders because I obey the General and the General alone." The idea that this "allegiance" would please the General is preposterous because the Private took it upon himself to circument the line of authority that the General created. Obeying the Lieutenant does not lessen allegiance to the General, but rather fulfills the allegiance.

I encourage you to review the passages I have cited and to consider thier implications. I look forward to reading your take on what they mean.

In Christ,
Dave

Posted by: Dave at February 5, 2004 07:39 PM

Jon,

Just wanted to let you know that I checked with an English/Grammar teacher...

in the phrase:


..if I am delayed, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of truth. - 1 Timothy 3:15

The primary objective noun in this sentence is "household", "of God" is a prepositional phrase characterizing the type of "household", this is then further described and supported by the clause "which is the church of the living God". Here "church" is the secondary objective noun further described by the prepositional phrase "of the living God". Therefore, the phrase "the pillar and bulwark of truth", set off by a comma, is a descriptive phrase further describing both the primary and secondary objective noun, i.e. "household" and "church".

Just for the record...

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by: Joe at February 5, 2004 09:07 PM

Truth and ultimate authority to me reside only in the triune God. We have access to them through the Bible, but reasonable people can differ on what the words of the Bible mean simply because of our own human inadequency of comprehending the truth. The passages that you claim are evidence for Jesus granting authority to the Catholic Church are simply not clear enough given the magnitude of the power you claim is being conveyed. I have choosen a few of your claims to attempt to show there is another possible interpretation in each case.

Your drawing a parallel between Peter and Abraham is in my opinion your strongest argument for a special authority of Peter, but even there we see in Galatians 2:11 "When Peter came to Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he was clearly in the wrong." God named Abraham, Jesus named Peter, and the Holy Spirit named Paul. Now we have Paul confronting Peter. Even though Peter received the keys to heaven, where does it say those keys are to be passed on in a process that is susceptible to political intrigue? The written word is simply our best connection to the Living Word that is not susceptible to human failing.

Dave, in Matthew 16:18 the phrase "this rock" just seems a rather odd way to refer to someone to whom one is speaking. The English translation seems awkward. Jesus must have choosen the word rock for a reason. I am hypothesizing that the original rock is the same as described in Deuteronomy 32:3-4, namely God. Peter is certainly one of stones in the foundation, as you point is said in Ephesians 2:20. Because of his faith, Jesus has named him after the Rock, but that does not make him the Rock, nor does it say anything about him having authority to pass on the mantle of truth.

Galatians 2 and Ephesians 2 are two beautiful chapters, but I don't see how they relate specifically to the Catholic Church. The Apostles are without a doubt the foundations of how the rest of us come to know Jesus, and the organization of churches is certainly a part of that. However, with all the Bible says about the requirements of character and marriage of deacons and bishops, it seems informative that the Bible does not say that in addition all congregations must defer to one group for teaching. Jesus choose the Apostles to spread his word so he did select a special group, but is there any evidence the Apostles would select replacements for themselves beyond Paul?

You say that Protestant churches have rejected the authority passed down from the Apostles. I do not see it that way at all. What they have rejected is specific beliefs of the Catholic church for which there is no convincing scriptural evidence, and instead they (the conservative ones anyway) stay as close to the Bible as they can. (If you were talking about the liberal churches only, then I would tend more towards agreeing with you.)

Joe again - would you agree that "the pillar and bulwark of the truth" is an appositive since there is no preposition present? If so, I direct your attention here, which says that an appostive "renames another noun right beside it." The word right beside the appositive in this case is God. Later on that page it explains why the comma is there.

Posted by: Jon Cohen at February 6, 2004 12:14 AM

Jon,

Two major flaws in your thinking that you have failed to explain or justify:

1) The Church precedes the Bible, that is a historical fact. How can the Bible be the only authoritative source on God, if in fact it was compiled by the Church? Logically, the source (the Church) that decides that something (the Bible) is divinely-inspired holds an authority above that, for it has the authority to make such a claim.

2) How have the Protestant churches not abandoned both the Church Christ founded and even the Scriptures themselves? I would say the most important thing that Protestants lost was the Eucharist, the Body and Blood of Jesus Christ. Jesus commanded us to eat His Flesh and drink His Blood (John 6:48-59). This is not an ambiguous passage. Scripture also states that we are to "stand firm and hold to the traditions which you (we) were taught by us (the apostles), either by word of mouth or by letter (or our letters, or letters of ours)" (1 Thes 2:15). Regardless of what letters Paul is talking about, he still says "by word of mouth". The very fact that the apostles wrote letters to begin with attests to the living Tradition of the Church, for Jesus never commanded them to write anything. This they did on there own, and please note that not all of them wrote, yet all of them evangelized the nations and built up the Church.

On a side note, the Bible no where recounts the renaming of Paul by the Holy Spirit. Acts 13:9 simply states that "But Saul, who is also called Paul, filled with the Holy Spirit..." So I think including him in company of individuals who had theie names changed directly by God is reaching. Besides, the name changing of both Abraham and Peter is recorded as being monumental events, both are pivotal points in salvation history, with direct conversation occurring between God and the person being renamed. Both events include covenantal promises being made by God to each specific individual.

Now on to your next objection, Paul's correcting Peter. Paul's correcting Peter in no way nullifies Peter's authority.


Paul's correction of Peter did not go against the latter's authority. On the contrary, if it had been just anyone, the Teacher of the Gentiles might have let the matter pass; but because it was Cephas, that is, the "rock" of the Church, he had to take action in order to avoid the impression being given that Christians of Gentile origin were obliged to adopt a Jewish lifestyle.
Far from undermining the holiness and unity of the Church, this episode demonstrated the great spiritual solidarity among the Apostles, St. Paul's regard for the visible Church, and Peter's humility in correcting his behaviour. St. Augustine (354-430 A.D.) comments: "He who was rebuked was worthier of admiration and more difficult to imitate than he who made the rebuke [...]. This episode serves as a fine example of humility, the greatest of Christian teachings, because it is through humility that charity is maintained" (Exp. in Gal, 15).

In reference to your comment on "replacements" for the Apostles, we must look at two things:

1) Paul was not a "replacement", he was an addition.

2) Apostolic succession is clearly shown in Acts 1:15-26. Matthias is chosen to fill the "office" of Judas, one of the original Twelve.

So we have two things occurring here, 1) an Apostle (or bishop) being added, and 2) the "office" of an Apostle (or bishop) being filled. Both of these things clearly demonstrate this biblical tradition and Catholic teaching.

In reference to Matthew 16, keep in mind that Matthew's Gospel was originally written in Hebrew and the passage uses the same word for both "Peter" and "Rock", i.e. Cephas.

Every one of the examples of appositions on the page that you have linked to point to the immediate noun before the comma because each of those examples have the primary subject noun directly before the comma. This is not the case in 1 Timothy 2:15. The primary subject noun in 1 Timothy 2:15 is "you", "household" is the primary objective noun and "God" is part of the prepositional phrase further characterizing the type of "household" and "church". So again, I have to disagree with your grammatical intrepretation here.

I hope this helps.

In Christ,
Joe

Posted by: Joe at February 6, 2004 06:38 AM

Joe, I will get to the susbtance of your comments tonight. As for the appositive, here's an example of an appostive that attaches to a noun within a preposition: here. We visited the home of Harriet Beecher Stowe, the author of Uncle Tom's Cabin.

Stowe is the author, not the home. This is exactly parellel to the church not being the pillar and bulwark of truth. You can easily substitute the words Stowe and author into 1 Timoty 3:15 to see that the sentence structure does not change.

More later.

Jon

Posted by: Jon Cohen at February 6, 2004 08:14 AM

Jon,
Just to point out the obvious: this sentence was written in Greek using Greek grammar. I believe you may be the only person on earth arguing that the verse is referring to God and not the Church as the foundation and bulwark of Truth.

This verse has been translated into virtually every language on earth and has always been understood the same. You're reaching on this one and I think you know what Paul intended.

God bless,
Jay

Posted by: Jay at February 6, 2004 09:09 AM

Jon,

Just a brief note about one thing you said. I find it very interesting that you think "conservative" Protestant churches remain faithful to the written Word while "liberal" Protestant churches have not. Yet in same posting you boldly declare that reasonable people can disagree on their interpretation of the Word.

How is it that these statements do not contradict one another? By "reasonable people can disagree", I presume that you support the Protestant notion that no single group of people have the authority to interpret the Bible. Rather, each Christian, acting with the guidance of the Holy Spirit, must interpret and apply the Word to themselves. If that is indeed your belief, then the "liberal" groups follow the Bible just as closely as the "conservative" ones. To the extent that you would correct me, consider that you have denied yourself the authority to do so. Remember that those "liberals" have just as much right and authority to interpret the Bible as you do. It will do no good to complain of the manner in which they interpret because however poor it may be, you yourself can point to no better interpretive authority!

By way of further blurring the line between "liberal" and "conservative" Protestant churches, note that "conservative" congregations permit birth control (something that NONE of them did until the 1930's through the 1970's), permit the ordination of women (again, a recent flip flop), permit divorce (another flip flop), and the list goes on. Far from being conservative, Protestant churches in 400 years of existence have reversed positions so many times it is demoralizing.

By contrast, consider the Catholic Church. In 2000 years and despite plenty of opposition from both within and without, they have remained constant on teachings of abortion, birth control, homosexuality, monogamy, ordination, etc. (Monogamy is a particularly fascinating issue; where pray tell do you find that in the Bible? No doubt we should all return to the Biblical strict constructionist support of polygamy!)

One of the last straws for me in the Protestant church was watching the ordination of Bishop Gene Robinson in the Episcopalean church. This, one of the original Protestant denominations has fallen so far as to actively promote the sexual lifestyle of an active and practicing homosexual priest! But when I really thought about it (I was an evangelical), there was nothing to say. As a Protestant, I had no more claim to accurate Biblical interpretation than the Episcopalean church. That's when I realized that even conservative churches, no matter how well intentioned, would always end up just as the Episcopaleans (or Lutherans, Presbyterians, Methodists, etc. all of whose largest branches have fallen to the same level). The reason is that these groups have cut themselves off from any authoritative voice on Scripture. While with one side of the mouth Protestants declare "Sola Scriptura" the other side of the mouth says "everyone figure out what 'Scriptura' means for yourself". Thus Scripture has no real authority in any Protestant church because there is no person or body who can authoritatively discern the meaning of that authority.

Enter the Catholic Church which has always clearly advocated the authority of the Scripture, AND clearly identified who it is that has the authority to discern the true meaning of that Scripture. Catholic doctrine has remained so constant because interpretation of Scripture has always been left to the leaders of the Church appointed by God/Christ, who are collectively inspired by the Holy Spirit. That Spirit is unitary and unchanging, just like the Catholic dogma He inspires.

We the people must respond to the leaders of the Church just as the Ethiopian responded to Philip (the predecessor of those leaders):

"Then Philip ran up to the chariot and heard the man reading Isaiah the prophet. 'Do you understand what you are reading?' Philip asked. 'How can I,' he said, 'unless someone explains it to me?' So he invited Philip to come up and sit with him." Acts 8:30-31.

Why is it so difficult to understand that we are no different than the Ethiopean? We too must learn at the feet of those who have preceded us, rather that to arrogantly claim for ourselves the fullness of Divine revelation simply because we can casually cast our eyes upon the words themselves. Consider the words of the greatest influence upon Western Christianity aside from Christ Himself, St. Augustine, talking about this subject in "On Christian Doctrine":

"But now as to those who talk vauntingly of Divine Grace, and boast that they understand and can explain Scripture without the aid of such directions as those I now propose to lay down, and who think, therefore, that what I have undertaken to write is entirely superfluous. I would such persons could calm themselves so far as to remember that, however justly they may rejoice in God's great gift, yet it was from human teachers they themselves learnt to read."

He goes on to note that if we must learn reading from human teaches, how ridiculous is it to suggest that we can learn the very words of God on our own! Think upon this, and do not casually dismiss wisdom that has proven reliable for 1700 years now.

In Christ,
Dave

Posted by: Dave at February 6, 2004 04:09 PM

Joe,

I have great respect for the positions the Catholic Church today. But there were times when it erred. The response was the Reformation. How could the church that assembled the Bible commit those errors? As you say the Bible is divinely inspired, but there have been periods of time since the writing of the Bible that God has not inspired the Catholic Church. During those times clearly the Bible had more authority than the Church.

I looked for another appositive that followed "of the living God" to see if the appositive would bind to the antecend of "of" as you claim in 1 Tim 3:15. The only one I found comes from the from the Hebrew of the Old Testament, but it illustrates my point regarding the English translation.

Jeremiah 23:36 "But you must not mention 'the oracle of the LORD ' again, because every man's own word becomes his oracle and so you distort the words of the living God, the LORD Almighty, our God."

Here, the LORD Almighty obviously refers to "living God" and not "words".

And what if the church is a pillar and bulwark of truth?

"Let the prophet who has a dream tell his dream, but let the one who has my word speak it faithfully. For what has straw to do with grain?" declares the LORD . "Is not my word like fire," declares the LORD , "and like a hammer that breaks a rock in pieces?" Jeremiah 23:28,29

I'd say that puts a different light the church being a pillar, if the church does not speak the word of the Lord faithfully.

2 Thes 2:15 says to "stand firm and hold to the teachings we passed on to you." That seems to exclude adding on to them later.

Dave, in my opinion liberal churches don't in